1. An employer has issued an instruction to its employees (players) that certain apparel must be worn publicly on a specified occasion, completely without consultation.
2. This apparel is distasteful to some of the players, who indicate they don't wish to wear it.
3. The names of the players concerned are published in media, and a storm of outrage is directed at them. All of this amounts to a detriment.
4. The detriment is borne disproportionately (in this case entirely) by employees of a certain racial group, due to characteristics found in that group.
This in my view amounts to indirect discrimination based on race.
1. Correct, as an employer is legally able to do. It is a lawful direction and does not require consultation.
2. Allegedly correct, although it should be noted that the reasons for refusal to follow that direction are important they do not necessarily mitigate any potential misconduct. In this case, it is unlikely that they do.
3. Potentially correct. However, you would need to establish that the club itself was responsible for publishing or providing those names and that doing so was motivated by the race of the players. For the reasons I mentioned earlier, the later is almost certainly incorrect.
4. That is likely to be incidentally correct, but the relevant consideration is not their race. This can be easily demonstrated (if any adverse action was to be taken) by the varying racial groups involved and the fact members of those same groups are not.
Like I said, you could argue religious or cultural discrimination but it would almost certainly fail. Race would be an impossible argument