As far as Rothfield's article goes...and this might just be me...but are the copies of the letter supposed to show that he demanded the loan repaid in full and then backed down and offered to forgive the loan? Because the concession is dated before the demand...
So...he has offered to write off the loan, and then obviously when negotiations have gone to sh*t he's demanded repayment in full (of a loan he may or may not have written off)?
So...he has offered to write off the loan, and then obviously when negotiations have gone to sh*t he's demanded repayment in full (of a loan he may or may not have written off)?